Possible Solutions for Homework #2 Econ B2000, MA Econometrics Kevin R Foster, CCNY |
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answers will vary
answers will vary
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Y=0 |
Y=1 |
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X=0 |
0.037 |
0.622 |
0.659 |
X=1 |
0.009 |
0.332 |
0.341 |
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0.046 |
0.954 |
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E(Y) = 0*.046 + 1*.954 = .954. The unemployment rate is the fraction who are unemployed (with Z = 1, where Z = 1 – Y) , so .046. The unemployment rate for the first row is the conditional mean, so .037/.659 = 5.61%; for the second row is .009/.341 = 2.64%. Then conditional on being unemployed (in column 1) what is the likelihood of being in the first row? This is .037/.046 so 80.4% of the unemployed are not college grads and .009/.046 = 19.6% are college grads. The rates are not independent – college grads make 34.1% of the labor force but 19.6% of the unemployed; these rates are not equal.
With R = wRS + (1 – w)RB, we know that the mean of R is a weighted average of the means of the stock and bond funds so R = .08w + .05(1 – w); if w=.5 then R=.065. Its standard deviation is so, noting that we're given the correlation not the covariance so we must multiply the correlation times the two standard deviations, the portfolio stdev is . With w=.5 this is .044. With w-.75 the mean is 7% with stdev of 5.58% -- higher return but riskier. If we wanted just to maximize the expected return then we would want as big a stock position as possible; either w=1 or even higher. Higher w means a negative weighting in bonds – this means taking a loan i.e. going short in bonds. Typically there is some limit to the amount of the available loan; if, say, (1 – w) ≥ -1 then w=2 and the expected return is 16%. But this is very risky (13.6% stdev); the minimal risk, where the stdev is lowest, is not to short the stock and buy all bonds but (because of the covariance), which is about .18 (find by experimentation or differentiating).
It might be useful, when thinking about Normal distributions, to consider much of the work as just a change of measurement units along the x-axis. A Standard Normal (with zero mean and standard deviation of one) can be thought of as just a change of units away from a Normal (with some non-zero mean and standard deviation other than one).
For example, the question, " For a Normal Distribution with mean 4 and standard deviation 6, what is area to the left of 1?" We can graph this as:
or it can be equivalently graphed with a change of units, by subtracting the mean (4) and dividing by the standard deviation (6):
It's the same area under either distribution – it doesn't matter whether we use the red units or the blue units; we get the same answer. The blue units are "standardized" while the red are not; for the blue units we use a standard normal distribution while for the red units we use a normal distribution with a different mean and standard deviation.
A. 0.1251 B. 0.0107 C. 0.4585 D. 0.9893
Sketch this as
or
So, with Excel, either find the red-unit area as 1 – NORMDIST(23.1,1,9.6,TRUE) = .0107 or blue-unit area as 1 – NORMSDIST( (23.1 – 1)/9.6 ) = .0107.
A. 0.1587 B. 0.9893 C. 0.9356 D. 0.0107
or
so .0107.
A. 0.2743 B. 0.1587 C. 0.8849 D. 0.2301
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so 88%.
A. 0.0107 B. 0.8235 C. 0.0214 D. 0.0971
or
which is .0111 (not one of the answers listed, sorry!)
A. 0.1936 B. 0.3872 C. 0.2866 D. 0.1587
or
so 19%.
A. 0.1251 B. 0.1587 C. 0.0429 D. 0.0214
or
so 2.14%.
A. 11.6733 B. 10.8987 C. 10.7973 D. 11.2027
or
So 11.2 leaves 40% in the right-hand tail.
A. 1.0537 B. -4.8999 C. -7.2603 D. 0.8540
or
so -7.26 leaves 14.6 in the right tail.
or
so this is the interval outside of (1.29,6.71) in red measure or ±.602 in blue measure.