|
Homework 3 Possible Solutions
K Foster, Options & Futures, Eco 275, CCNY, Spring 2010 |
|
|
Each
bond will pay 0.03 every 6 months for the next 5 years and then 100 after 5 years. So the current value of each bond is . The strips pay
and of course one big one of
. So the difference in value between the
original bonds and the strips, if there are 10 payments of p=0.0001, is
. (Given interest rates you could get a number
but for now it's just a formula.)
Stib could pay Z a certain amount of money now, in return guaranteeing that it will allow Z to invest $1m at 5% in the future while, for itself, locking in an investment of $1m at 5.5% for that same future period. So Z gets $1.05m after 6 years but Stib gets $1.055m after six years, a difference of $5000 (50bps). So the present value of this is 5000exp{-.055*5} = 3798. The upfront payment makes it somewhat like a loan but where the payback period is stretched into the future.
A trader owns gold; can buy at $550 & sell at $549. Can borrow at 6% or invest at 5.5% (annual
compounding). What 1-yr forward leaves
no arbitrage? If buying gold forward returns more than 6%
then the trader would want to borrow at 6% and invest in gold, so the forward
price must be F0 such that ,
so, with the rate at which she can borrow, rb=0.06, F0
< 583. If the forward price of gold
returned less than leaving money in the bank then the trader would sell short
at $549 and deliver at the forward rate after investing her money at 5.5%, so
the forward price must be such that
where ri is the rate at which she can invest,
0.055, so F0 > 579. So the
forward price must be within this $4 range.
Bank can borrow/lend at LIBOR; 90-day is 10% and 180-day is 10.2%,
both continuous with actual/actual day counts.
Eurodollar futures in 91 days is 89.5 what arbitrage opportunities are open? The
Eurodollar futures contract means that I can, in 91 days, buy a bond paying 100
in 180 days, for 89.5. This implies an
interest rate of
(annualized) so r=11%. The LIBOR rates imply that the forward rate
from 90
180 days is 10.4%, so it would be better to
invest for 90 days and buy the forward.
Company A wants to borrow dollars at fixed rate; Company B wants to borrow sterling at fixed rate. Co A is quoted r£ = 11%, r$ = 7; Co B r£ = 10.6% and r$ = 6.2%. Design a swap that will net a bank 10bps and gain each company 15bps.
Consider Scenario I (no swap) on 100m of each currency:
|
A borrows $ at 7% |
each year A pays $7m |
|
B borrows £ at 10.6% |
each year B pays £10.6m |
Versus Scenario II where they borrow in the opposite currency and swap,
|
A borrows £ at 11% |
|
each year A pays $6.2m |
|
B borrows $ at 6.2% |
each year B pays £11m |
Clearly
Scenario II suffers from the fact that B is worse off so B wouldn't take that deal since it is worse
off by 40 bps. But there's room for
negotiation since A improves its rate by 80 bps. So they can work out Scenario III, where they
borrow and swap so that:
|
A borrows £ at 11% |
|
each year A pays $6.85m |
|
B borrows $ at 6.2% |
each year B pays £10.45m |
and the i-bank in the middle gets 10 bps.
The
3-mo zero rate is found by setting 9875.78 = 10000exp{-rt} where t=3/12, so rt
= ln[9875.78/10000] so r=5%. then the
second bond is worth the PDV of its payments, so 990.06 = 500 exp{-r3t}
+ 500 exp{-r6t}, where r3 is the 3-month zero rate and r6
is the 6-month zero rate and the respective t's are 3/12 and 6/12, so
. We just solved to find r3=0.05 so
then solve to find r6 is 1.5%.
the forward rate went negative 2%!
§ Bond ZZZ pays a $4000 coupon every six months, including 6 months from today, 12 months from today, and 18 months from today. It also pays its principal of $200,000 in 18 months at the same time as its last coupon. Its current market value is $201,359.31.
§ Bond YYY pays its $8500 coupon in 6 months and then that coupon again in 12 months along with its $500,000 principal. Its current market value is $499,342.04.
§ Bond VVV pays its principal of $600,000 plus its $8000 semi-annual coupon in 6 months. Its current market value is $595,960.79.
a. Find the six month zero rate (continuously compounded).
b. Find the six-to-twelve month forward rate and the twelve month zero rate (continuously compounded).
c. Find the twelve-to-eighteen month forward rate and the eighteen month zero rate (continuously compounded).
d. Find the par yield for each bond.
e. Find the semiannually-compounded (discrete time every 6 months) zero rates.
f. What is the duration of bond VVV?
Continuous
Work
backwards to get zero rates, from VVV. We know that the value of a bond is the
present discounted value of its future cash flows, so BVVV =
$608,000*PDV(r, t), where t=6 months = 0.5 years. In continuous time the PDV(r,t) function is e-rt. The interest rate to be used is the zero rate
corresponding to that time, so call it r6. Substitute these in so . We
are given that BVVV = 595,960.79; solve as follows:
So r6 = 4%.
Next
use this information on r6 to find r12, using the price
of bond YYY. (If you noticed, I skipped
Bond XXX not going there!) The present discounted value of bond YYY is
8500PDV(r6,t=6mo) + 508500PDV(r12,t=12mo). So the equation is
,
where we found r6 above so put that in and solve:
So r12= 3.4% and this means that the forward rate is that rate which averages with 4% to produce 3.4%; so 2.8%.
Finally use these first 2 zero rates to figure out the r18 rate. The present discounted value of the bond cashflows give 201,359.31 = 4000PDV(r,t=6mo) + 4000PDV(r,t=12mo) + 204,000PDV(r,t=18mo). So the equation is:
.
Substitute in the values already found for r6 and r12 and solve:
So r18 is 3.5%. So the forward rate is that rate which makes the average of 4%, 3.4%, and x% equal to 3.5%; so this is 3.1%.
Par Yield
The
par yield is the coupon rate that makes the bond price equal its par value. For bond VVV, this is the c such that (where we normalize the par value to 100) so
solve to get
and c=4.04.
The par yield for bond YYY is c such that
. Solve so c=3.43. For bond ZZZ,
so c=3.53.
Semiannual
From
VVV we know that (using semiannual compounding, we just use a different
expression for PDV(r,t,m)) ,
where t is 0.5 and m=2, so get r6=4%.
Then
use YYY to find the next zero rate. Thus
where we know m=2 and r6 is 4% so
just solve for r12. So
,
,
then
,
and r12 = 3.53%. So the forward rate to get the average down
from 4% to 3.53% must be 3.015%.
Then
use ZZZ to find the final zero rate from and r18 = 0.0353.
Duration
This one is easy: the duration of a bond with only one payment is the time to that one payment, so 6 months.